NEET 2020 Mock Test 3

Exam Duration: 180 Mins Total Questions : 180

1 )

The magnitudes of vectors \(\overrightarrow { A } ,\overrightarrow { B } \) and \(\overrightarrow { C }\) are respectively 12 5 and 13 units and \(\overrightarrow { A } +\overrightarrow { B } \)=\(\overrightarrow { C }\), then the angle between \(\overrightarrow { A }\) and \(\overrightarrow { B }\) is:

(a)
0
(b)
\(\pi\)
(c)
\(\pi\)
(d)
\(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

2 )

If \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are two vectors, which of the following is not correct?

(a)
\(\vec { A } +\vec { B } =\vec { B } +\vec { A } \)
(b)
\(\vec { A }.\vec { B } =\vec { B } .\vec { A } \)
(c)
\(\vec { A } \times \vec { B } =\vec { B } \times \vec { A } \)
(d)
\(\vec { A } -\vec { B } =-(\vec { B } -\vec { A } )\)

3 )

A car is moving horizontally along a straight line with a uniform velocity of 25 m s^-1. A projectile is to be fired from this car in such a way that it will return to it after it has moved 100 m. The speed of the projectile must be:

(a)
9.8 ms^-1
(b)
19.6 ms^-1
(c)
15.6 ms^-1
(d)
24.6 ms^-1

4 )

The order of magnitude of the diameter of the earth is (Diameter of the earth is 1.28 x 10⁷m)

(a)
5
(b)
6
(c)
7
(d)
8

5 )

The cell wall is composed of two thin overlapping shells which fit together like a soap case in

(a)
desmids
(b)
diatoms
(c)
dinoflagellates
(d)
slime moulds.

6 )

Which of the following statements regarding Kingdom Animalia is incorrect?

(a)
It includes heterotrophic, unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
(b)
The members of this kingdom lack cell walls.
(c)
The mode of nutrition is holozoic.
(d)
The sexual reproduction in its members is by copulation of male and female.

7 )

Select the pair that consists of viral diseases

(a)
Mumps and small pox
(b)
Herpes and influenza
(c)
Pneumonia and syphilis
(d)
Both (a) and (b)

8 )

The most efficient locomotion in protists is through:-

(a)
Pseudopodia
(b)
Flagella
(c)
Cilia
(d)
Tentacles

9 )

Neurospora, which is popularly known as Drosophila of plant kingdom, belongs to:-

(a)
Phycomycets
(b)
Ascomycetes
(c)
Basidiomycetes
(d)
Seuteromycetes

10 )

Peat moss is

(a)
Sphagnum
(b)
Dryopteris
(c)
Funaria
(d)
Polytrichum

11 )

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(a)
Coliforms-Vinegar
(b)
Methanogens-Gobar gas
(c)
Yeast-Ethanol
(d)
Streptomycetes-Antibiotic

12 )

Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(a)
Camelus
(b)
Cheone
(c)
Macropus
(d)
Psittacula

13 )

Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(a)
acoelomate
(b)
pseudocoelomate
(c)
coelomate
(d)
haemocoelomate.

14 )

Reticulate venation is a characteristic of dicots. An exception to this generalisation is

(a)
Ca/ophyllum
(b)
Ficus
(c)
Hibiscus
(d)
Zizyphus.

15 )

A small rootless aquatic herb in which a portion of leaf forms a tiny sack or bladder which traps water insects is

(a)
Dionaea
(b)
Utricularia
(c)
Sarracenia
(d)
Drosera.

16 )

Match the columns and choose the correct option

Column I (Fruit)	Column II (Edible part)
a) Walnut	I) Cotyledon
b) Cashewnut	II) Seed
c) Orange	III) Endocarp
d) Strawberry	IV) Thalamus

(a)
a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
(b)
a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
(c)
a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
(d)
a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

17 )

When adventitious roots are shallow surface feeders then they are known as

(a)
Tuberous root
(b)
Prop root
(c)
Fibrous root
(d)
Conial root

18 )

Find the odd one w.r.t stem tendril

(a)
Grapevines
(b)
Cucumber
(c)
Pea
(d)
Pumpkin

19 )

Zygomorphic flower occurs in

(a)
Pea
(b)
Gulmohur
(c)
Cassia
(d)
All of these

20 )

Stomata are distributed more on the lower surface than on the upper surface in

(a)
equifacial leaf
(b)
bifacial leaf
(c)
unifacial leaf
(d)
both (a) and (b).

21 )

In a dorsiventral leaf, what is true regarding the position of xylem?

(a)
Xylem is towards adaxial epidermis.
(b)
Xylem is towards abaxial epidermis.
(c)
Xylem surrounds phloem.
(d)
Xylem is surrounded by phloem.

22 )

Cell wall in dead mechanical tissue show

(a)
Lignified nature
(b)
Cutinised nature
(c)
Pectose deposition
(d)
Hemicellulose deposition

23 )

Heart wood is

(a)
Situated away form vascular cambium
(b)
Situated near pith
(c)
Nonfunctional
(d)
All of these

24 )

Assertion: Tendons attach one bone to another bone.
Reason: Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bones.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false.

25 )

Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(a)
Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(b)
Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(c)
Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(d)
Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.

26 )

In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

(a)
Diplotene
(b)
Pachytene
(c)
Leptotene
(d)
Zygotene

27 )

At what phase of meiosis there are two cells, each with separated sister chromatids that have been moved to opposite spindle poles?

(a)
Anaphase II
(b)
Anaphase I
(c)
Telophase II
(d)
Telophase I

28 )

In meiosis, how many cycles of chrmosome division occurs?

(a)
One
(b)
Four
(c)
Two
(d)
Three

29 )

During cell division, spindle fibers attach to which part of chromosome ;

(a)
Primary constriction
(b)
Sec, constriction
(c)
Chromomere
(d)
Chromatid

30 )

Ascent of sap is best explained by

(a)
mass (bulk) flow
(b)
pulsation theory
(c)
root pressure
(d)
cohesion-tension transpiration pull

31 )

Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two hours. The most important physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of water is _______________.

(a)
guttation
(b)
evaporation
(c)
transpiration
(d)
none of these

32 )

Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called

(a)
Complementary cells
(b)
Subsidiary cells
(c)
Bulliform cells
(d)
Lenticels

33 )

Select the correctly matched pair

(a)
Zinc - Helps to maintain the ribosome structure
(b)
Magnesium - Needed during the formation of mitotic spindle
(c)
Calcium - Plays a role in the opening and closing of stomata
(d)
Manganese - Needed in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis

34 )

Which of the foolowing set contains macro nutrients?

(a)
P, N, K and Mg
(b)
K, Mn, Fe and Co
(c)
P, Fe, Mn and K
(d)
Fe, Co, Si and N

35 )

Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Carboxylation is the most crucial step of Calvin cycle where CO₂ is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP.
Statement 2: Carboxylation is catalysed by the enzyme RuBisCO which results in the formation of two molecules of 3PGA.

(a)
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b)
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(c)
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(d)
Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

36 )

What is true about the end products of glycolysis?

(a)
2 pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH₂
(b)
2 pyruvic acid + 2NADH₂
(c)
1 pyruvic acid + 2ATP + 2NADH₂
(d)
2 pyruvic acid + 1ATP + 1NADH₂

37 )

In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
Assertion: Fermentation is the incomplete oxidation of glucose into lactic acid or ethanol.
Reason: It takes place under anaerobic conditions in prokaryotes only.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false.

38 )

Pyuvate dehydrogenase complex is used ion converting-

(a)
Pyurvate to glucose
(b)
Glouse to pyruvate
(c)
Pyruvic acid to lactic acid
(d)
Pyruvate to acetyl Co-A

39 )

Consider the following statements each with one or two blanks.
(i) Left lung has___(1)___lobes and right lung has___(2)____lobes.
(ii) Prawn respires with___(3)_____and insects with____(4)____.
(iii) Amount of air inhaled and exhaled with maximum effort is referred to as the___(5)____of the lungs.
Fill up the above blanks by selecting the correct option.

(a)
(1) - three, (2) - two, (3) - gills (4)-tracheae
(b)
(1) - two, (2) - three, (5) - vital capacity
(c)
(3) - gills, (4) - tracheae, (5) - tidal volume
(d)
(3) - tracheae, (4) - gills, (5) - tidal volume

40 )

People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimetre of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude

(a)
people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
(b)
people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
(c)
atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive
(d)
there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production.

41 )

Assertion: Vocal cords consist of three pairs of mucous membrane that extend into the lumen of the larynx.
Reason: Sound is produced by only two pairs of cords.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false

42 )

People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back.

(a)
Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to oxygen
(b)
Are not physically fit to play games like football
(c)
Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue etc.
(d)
Have the usual RBCcount but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to oxygen

43 )

Excessively high heart rate (> 180) can reduce cardiac output because

(a)
blood is moving too fast through the lungs to pick up enough oxygen
(b)
it tires out the heart muscles and so they pump slower
(c)
it reduces the time for ventricular filling which reduces stroke volume
(d)
the PR-interval increases which leads to longer ventricular diastole and shorter ventricular systole

44 )

Which one of the following statements in more dilute urine which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

(a)
Nearly 90% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(b)
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
(c)
Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(d)
Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO₃

45 )

A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by nephrons in the kidneys but only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate

(a)
is stored in the urinary bladder
(b)
is reabsorbed into the blood
(c)
gets collected in the renal pelvis
(d)
is lost as sweat.

46 )

Human beings are

(a)
Uricotelic
(b)
Ureotelic
(c)
Ammonotelic
(d)
Both (2) & (3)

47 )

What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the hairpin bend of loop of Henle?

(a)
300 mOsmL^-1
(b)
1200 mOsmL^-1
(c)
600 mOsmL^-1
(d)
800 mOsmL^-1

48 )

Which of the following is a source of energy for muscle contraction?

(a)
Actin
(b)
ATP
(c)
Myosin
(d)
Actomyosin

49 )

The joint in which one of the two bones is fixed in its place and bears a peg like process over which the other bone rotates is called

(a)
hinge joint
(b)
saddle joint
(c)
pivot joint
(d)
angular joint

50 )

During walking talus passes/transmits about the half of the weight of body to

(a)
cuneiform
(b)
Cubold
(c)
Calcaneum
(d)
Navicular

51 )

In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was :

(a)
High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(b)
High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(c)
High level of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
(d)
High level of circulating HCG to stimulate oestrogen and progesterone synthesis

52 )

Endocrine glands have_____to carry their secretions to the specific organ.

(a)
capillaries
(b)
tubules
(c)
no ducts
(d)
ducts

53 )

Which of the following hormones is necessary for the development of secondary sexual characters in human beings?

(a)
Estrogen
(b)
FSH
(c)
Testosterone
(d)
Both (a) and (c)

54 )

Which of the following organs in mammals does not consist of a central 'medullary' region surrounded by a cortical region?

(a)
Ovary
(b)
Adrenal
(c)
Liver
(d)
Kidney

55 )

Boron has two stable isotopes,¹⁰B (19%) and¹¹B (81%). Average atomic weight for boron in the periodic table is:

(a)
10.8
(b)
10.2
(c)
11.2
(d)
10.0

56 )

The frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted when transition occurs between two stationary states with energies E₁ (lower) and E₂ (higher) is given by

(a)
v=\(\frac { { E }_{ 1 }+{ E }_{ 2 } }{ h } \)
(b)
v=\(\frac { { E }_{ 1 }-{ E }_{ 2 } }{ h } \)
(c)
v=\(\frac { { E }_{ 1 }\times { E }_{ 2 } }{ h } \)
(d)
v=\(\frac { { E }_{ 2 }-{ E }_{ 1 } }{ h } \)

57 )

The energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom has a negative sign for all possible orbits because:

(a)
when the electron is attracted by the nucleus and is present in orbit n, the energy is emitted and its energy is lowered.
(b)
when the electron is attracted by the nucleus and is present in orbit n, the energy is absorbed and its energy is increased.
(c)
when the electron is repelled by the nucleus, the energy is released and its energy is lowered.
(d)
none of these.

58 )

In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order :

(a)
MCl > MI > MBr > MF
(b)
MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(c)
MF > MCl > MI > MBr
(d)
MI > MBr > MCl > MF

59 )

According to molecular orbital theory which of the following lists rank the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?

(a)
N₂^- < N₂ < N₂^2-
(b)
N₂^2- < N₂^- < N₂
(c)
N₂ < N₂^2- < N₂^-
(d)
N₂^- < N₂^2- < N₂

60 )

Representing P, V and T as pressure, volume and temperature respectively, which of the following is the correct representation of Boyle's law?

(a)
\(V\propto \frac { 1 }{ T } \) (P constant)
(b)
\(V\propto \frac { 1 }{ P } \) (T constant)
(c)
PV=RT
(d)
PV=nRT

61 )

If ∆H is the change in enthalpy and ∆E, the change in internal energy accompanying a gaseous reaction?

(a)
∆H is always greater than ∆E
(b)
∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles of products is greater than the number of moles of the reactants
(c)
∆H is always less than ∆E
(d)
∆H < ∆E only if the number of moles of products is less than the number of moles of the reactants

62 )

A system changes from state X to Y with a change in internal energy measuring to 25 kJ mol^-1, by a reversible path and returns from Y to X by an irreversible path. What will be the net change in internal energy?

(a)
25 kJ
(b)
> 25 kJ
(c)
< 25 kJ
(d)
zero

63 )

Bond dissociation enthalpies of H_2(g) and N_2(g) are 436.0 kJ mol^-1 and 941.8 kJ mol^-1, respectively, and enthalpy of formation of NH_3(g) is -46 kJ mol^-1 . What are the enthalpy of atomisation of NH_3(g) and the average bond enthalpy of N - H bond respectively (in kJ mol^-1)?

(a)
1170.9,390.3
(b)
117,300
(c)
300,200
(d)
2000,1975

64 )

In which of the following, the solubility of AgCl will be minimum?

(a)
0.1M NaNO₃
(b)
Water
(c)
0.1M NaCl
(d)
0.1M NaBr

65 )

The yield of NH₃ in the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ \(\rightleftharpoons \) 2NH₃; \(\Delta \)H = -22.08 kcal mol'^-1 is affected by

(a)
change in pressure and temperature
(b)
change in temperature and concentration of N₂
(c)
change in pressure and concentration of N₂
(d)
change in pressure, temperature and concentration of N₂.

66 )

Acidic character of BF₃ can be explained on the basis of which of the following concepts?

(a)
Arrhenius concept
(b)
Bronsted-Lowry concept
(c)
Lewis concept
(d)
Bronsted-Lowry as well as Lewis concept

67 )

Which of the following is not a property of hydrogen?

(a)
It is a colourless, odourless gas.
(b)
It is highly combustible.
(c)
It is highly poisonous gas.
(d)
It is lighter than air.

68 )

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is:

(a)
Mg₂X
(b)
MgX₂
(c)
Mg₂X₃
(d)
Mg₃X₂

69 )

Mark the incorrect statement from the following.

(a)
Benzene has a planar structure
(b)
Benzene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon and shows addition reactions like alkenes
(c)
In benzene carbon uses two p-orbitals for hybridisation.
(d)
Aromatic hydrocarbons contain high percentage of carbon hence burn with sooty flame.

70 )

Dimensional formula of capacitance is :

(a)
[M^-1L^-2T⁴A²]
(b)
[ML²T⁴A²]
(c)
[MLT^-4A²]
(d)
[M^-1L^-2T^-4A^-2]

71 )

The length and breadth of a rectangle are (5.7 ± 0.1) cm and (3.4 ± 0.2) cm. The area of rectangle with error limits is approximately:

(a)
(19.4 ± 1)cm²
(b)
(19.4 ± 2) cm²
(c)
(19.4±2.5)cm²
(d)
(19.4±1.5)cm²

72 )

A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 4 m/sec comes to rest after 2 sec. If one wants to keep this body moving on the same surface with a velocity of 4 m/sec, the force required is:

(a)
8 N
(b)
Zero
(c)
4 N
(d)
2 N

73 )

A body of mass 16 kg accelerates down a smooth inclined plane with a force of 8 N. What is the minimum force required to make it move upwards with the same acceleration?

(a)
4 N
(b)
8 N
(c)
12 N
(d)
16 N

74 )

A Force F₁ of 500N is required to push a car of mass 1000 Kg slowly ar constant speed on a leveled road. If a force F₂ of 1000N is applied then the acceleration of the car will be

(a)
zero
(b)
1.5 ms^-2
(c)
1 ms^-2
(d)
0.5 ms^-2

75 )

A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 5 m with a uniform speed 5ms ^-1. What will be the average acceleration when the particle completes half revolution?

(a)
Zero
(b)
10 ms^-1
(c)
10 πms^-2
(d)
\(\frac{10}{\pi}\) ms^-2

76 )

The maximum safe speed of a vehicle over a curved road of radius 150 m is 10 ms ^-1. If the width of road is 7.5 m, the height of the outer edge is:

(a)
0.25 m
(b)
0.50 m
(c)
0.35 m
(d)
0.60 m

77 )

A particle is projected with a speed v at 45° with the horizontal. The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height his:

(a)
Zero
(b)
\(\frac { m\upsilon { h }^{ 2 } }{ \sqrt { 2 } } \)
(c)
\(\frac { m\upsilon ^{ 2 }h }{ 2 } \)
(d)
\(\frac { m\upsilon { h }^{ 3 } }{ \sqrt { 2 } } \)
(e)
\(\frac { m\upsilon { h } }{ \sqrt { 2 } } \)

78 )

Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are placed on frictionless surface and connected by a spring. An external kick gives a velocity of 14 m/sec to the heavier block in the direction of lighter one. The velocity gained by the centre of mass is:

(a)
14ms^-1
(b)
7ms^-1
(c)
12ms^-1
(d)
10ms^-1

79 )

An initial momentum is imparted to a homogeneous cylinder, as a result of which it begins to roll without slipping up an inclined plane at a speed ofvo = 4 m s^-1 . The plane makes an angle \(\theta \) = 30° with the horizontal. What height II will the cylinder rise to? ( Take g = 10m s^-2)

(a)
0.8 m
(b)
1.2 m
(c)
1.0 m
(d)
1.6 m

80 )

The moment of inertia of a thin circular disc about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is I. Then, the moment of inertia of the disc about an axis parallel to its diameter and touching the edge of the rim is:

(a)
I
(b)
2I
(c)
\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 } I\)
(d)
\(\frac {5 }{ 2 } I\)

81 )

The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plan of the ring is:

(a)
\(\sqrt { 3 } :\sqrt { 5 } \)
(b)
\(\sqrt { 12 } :\sqrt { 3 } \)
(c)
\( { 1 } :\sqrt { 3 } \)
(d)
\(\sqrt {5 } :\sqrt { 5} \)

82 )

An iron block of sides 50 cm x 8 cm x 15 cm has to be pushed along the floor. The force required will be minimum when the surface in contact with ground is

(a)
8 cm x 15 cm surface
(b)
50 cm x 15 cm surface
(c)
8 cm x 50 cm surface
(d)
force is same for all surfaces

83 )

block of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough horizontal plane. A time dependent force F=kf² acts on the block, where k = 2 N/s². Force of friction between block and the plane at t = 2 see is:

(a)
8 N
(b)
4 N
(c)
2 N
(d)
1 N

84 )

If the ball is thrown towards the surface of the earth:

(a)
the earth remains stationary while the ball moves downwards
(b)
the ball remains stationary while the earth moves upwards
(c)
the ball and the earth move towards each other
(d)
the ball and the earth move away from each other

85 )

A particle of mass M, starting from rest, undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is:

(a)
\(\cfrac { { MV }^{ 2 } }{ T } \)
(b)
\(\cfrac { 1 }{ 2 } \cfrac { MV^{ 2 } }{ { T }^{ 2 } } \)
(c)
\(\cfrac { { MV }^{ 2 } }{ { T }^{ 2 } } \)
(d)
\(\cfrac { 1 }{ 2 } \cfrac { MV^{ 2 } }{ { T }^{ } } \)

86 )

Consider a system of two particles having masses m₁ and m_2. If the particle of mass m₁ is pushed towards the centre of mass of particles through a distance d, by what distance would the particle of mass m₂ move so as to keep the centre of mass of particles at the original position?

(a)
(m₂/m₁)d
(b)
\(\frac {m_1}{m_1 + m_2}d\)
(c)
(m₁/m₂)d
(d)
d

87 )

LANDSAT series of satellite move in near polar orbits at an altitude of

(a)
3600 km
(b)
3000 km
(c)
918 km
(d)
512 km

88 )

The mass of the earth is 81 times that of the moon and the radius ofthe earth is 3.5 times that of the moon. The ratio of the escape velocity on the surface of the earth to that on the surface of the moon will be:

(a)
0.2
(b)
2.57
(c)
4.81
(d)
0.39

89 )

The earth's radius is R and acceleration due to gravity at its surface is g. If a body of mass m is sent to a height h = \(\frac { R }{ 5 } \) from the earth's surface, the potential energy increases by:

(a)
mgh
(b)
\(\frac { 4 }{ 5 } \) mgh
(c)
\(\frac {5 }{ 6 } \) mgh
(d)
\(\frac { 6 }{7 } \) mgh

90 )

A rubber cord catapult has cross-sectional area 25 nun 2 and initial length of rubber cord is 10 cm. It is stretched to 5 cm and then released to project a missile of mass 5 gm. Taking Y_rubber = 5 x 108 N/m²velocity of projected missile is :

(a)
20 m/s
(b)
100 m/s
(c)
250 m/s
(d)
200 m/s

91 )

The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to

(a)
Temperature on ideal gas scale
(b)
Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale
(c)
Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale
(d)
Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

92 )

In case of a hollow body, if ρ_B and ρ_s represent the densities of body and substance respectively, then:

(a)
p_B=p_s
(b)
p_B<p_s
(c)
p_B>p_s
(d)
none of these

93 )

If two liquids of same volume but different densities p₁ and p₂ are mixed, then density of mixture is given by:

(a)
\(p={p_1p_2\over2}\)
(b)
\(p={p_1+p_2\over2p_1p_2}\)
(c)
\(p={2p_1p_2\over p_1+p_2}\)
(d)
\(p={p_1p_2\over p_1+p_2}\)

94 )

A good lubricant should have:

(a)
high viscosity
(b)
low viscosity
(c)
moderate viscosity
(d)
high density

95 )

In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J, what will be the final internal energy?

(a)
42 J
(b)
12 J
(c)
10 J
(d)
18 J

96 )

Which of the following process is correct for the given P - V diagram.

(a)
Adiabatic process
(b)
Isothermal process
(c)
Isobaric process
(d)
Isochoric process

97 )

What is the most likely value for C_r (molar heat capacity at constant temperature)?

(a)
0
(b)
0 < C_r < C_v
(c)
C_v < C_r < C_p
(d)
infinity

98 )

The phase difference between two waves, represented by: \({ y }_{ 1 }={ 10 }^{ -6 }\sin { \left[ 100t+(x/50)+0.5 \right] } m\quad { y }_{ 2 }={ 10 }^{ -6 }\cos { \left[ 100t+(x/50) \right] } m\). where x is expressed in metres and t is expressed in seconds, is approximately:

(a)
1.07 rad
(b)
2.07 rad
(c)
0.5 rad
(d)
1.5 rad

99 )

41 tuning forks are arranged such that every fork gives 5 beats with the next. The last fork has a frequency that is double of the first. The frequency of the first fork is:

(a)
200
(b)
400
(c)
205
(d)
210

100 )

In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through

(a)
Runners
(b)
Rhizome
(c)
Offsets
(d)
Bulbils

101 )

Which one of the following pollination is autogamous?

(a)
Cleistogamy
(b)
Suspensor
(c)
Egg
(d)
Synergid

102 )

In female gametophyte which cell is mother cell of endosperm?

(a)
Synergid
(b)
Antipodal
(c)
Central cell
(d)
Egg

103 )

Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if

(a)
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
(b)
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthimic junction of the cervix
(c)
The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hours of release to ovum in uterus
(d)
The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube

104 )

Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted infections caused by bacteria only?

(a)
Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(b)
Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
(c)
Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(d)
Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis

105 )

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be transmitted through blood transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, tears, intravenous drug abuse, tatooing, ear and nose pierceing, sharing of razors, etc.
(b)
Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the second generation vaccine produced from transgenic yeast by recombinant DNA technology.
(c)
Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the first commercially available human vaccine produced by genetic engineering.
(d)
All of these

106 )

A plant with genotype AABBCC is selfed F2 phenotypic ratio would be :

(a)
9: 3: 3: 1
(b)
27: 9: 9: 9: 3: 3: 3
(c)
1: 1
(d)
3: 1

107 )

When a heterozygous tall pea plant of F₁generation upon self fertilization produces tall and dwarf phenotypes it proves the principle of

(a)
Dominance
(b)
Segregation
(c)
Independant assortement
(d)
Inheritance & purity of gameters

108 )

Complete linkage is found in

(a)
Birds
(b)
Snakes
(c)
Female- Drosophila
(d)
Male- Drosophila

109 )

A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth supplement is known as:

(a)
prototroph
(b)
phenotype
(c)
Holotype
(d)
Auxotroph

110 )

Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example?

(a)
Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds.
(b)
XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(c)
XO condition in humans as found in Turner syndrome, determines female sex.
(d)
Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

111 )

When the codon of mRNA is 5'-GUC-3' then the anticodon on tRNA will be

(a)
5'-CAG-3'
(b)
3'-CAG-5'
(c)
3'-CUG-5'
(d)
3'-CUG-5'

112 )

Severo Ochoa enzyme is

(a)
DNA polymerase
(b)
Guanyl transferase
(c)
Peptidyl transferase
(d)
Polynucleotide phosphorylase

113 )

During protein synthesis, amino acid gets attached to tRNA with the help of

(a)
mRNA
(b)
Aminoacyl synthetase
(c)
Ribosome
(d)
rRNA

114 )

The effects of genetic drift are more marked in

(a)
larger populations
(b)
Mendelian populations
(c)
island populations
(d)
smaller populations

115 )

An auto-immune disease is

(a)
SCID
(b)
rheumatoid arthritis
(c)
myasthenia gravis
(d)
both (b) and (c)

116 )

Which of the following statements is correct regarding nectarless cotton varieties?

(a)
They do not attract stem sawfly.
(b)
They are produced by mutation breeding.
(c)
They do not attract bollworms.
(d)
They attract cereal leaf beetle.

117 )

Tropical cane grown in south india is

(a)
Saccharum barberi with high sugar yield
(b)
S.Barberi with thinner stem and poor sugar content
(c)
S.officinarum with thicker stem
(d)
S.officinarum with poor sugar content /yield

118 )

Frieswal is Crossbreed of

(a)
Brown swiss and sahiwal
(b)
Tharparkar and Holstein Friesian
(c)
Holstein Friesian x sahiwal
(d)
Jersey x sahiwal

119 )

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

(a)
Separation
(b)
Purification
(c)
Preservation
(d)
Expression

120 )

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:

(a)
Purification of product
(b)
Addition of preservatives to the product
(c)
Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(d)
Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

121 )

In addition to Taq polymerase enzyme which other thermostable DNA polymerases have been isolated to be used in polymerase chain Reaction (PCR)?

(a)
Pfu polymerase isolated from Pyrococcus furiosus
(b)
Tti polymerase (vent polymerase) isolated from Thermococcus litoralis
(c)
Both (a) and (b)
(d)
None of these

122 )

A piece of nucleic acid using to find out a gene, by forming hybrid with it, is called as :

(a)
c - DNA
(b)
DNA probe
(c)
Sticky end
(d)
Blunt end

123 )

Which variety of rice was patented by a U.S. company even though the highest number of varieties of this rice are found in India?

(a)
Sharbati Sonora
(b)
Co-667
(c)
Basmati
(d)
Lerma Rojo

124 )

Natality refers to:

(a)
Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(b)
Birth rate
(c)
Death rate
(d)
Number of individuals entering a habitat

125 )

Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:

(a)
More aboundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
(b)
Competition for the same resources excludes species having food preferences
(c)
No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
(d)
Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition

126 )

Which of the following equations correctly represents Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth?

(a)
dN/dt = rN\(\left( \frac { K-N }{ K } \right) \)
(b)
dN/dt = \(\frac{rN}{K}\)
(c)
dN/dt = \(\frac { N\left( K-N \right) }{ K } \)
(d)
dN/dt = \(\frac { r\left( K-N \right) }{ K } \)

127 )

The plant - animal interactions often involve co-evolution of the mutualists so that

(a)
the mutually beneficial system could be safeguarded against 'cheaters'
(b)
a given plant species can be pollinated only by its partner animal species and no other species
(c)
the animal utilises plant not only for oviposition but also to pollinate the plant
(d)
all of these

128 )

Where would the greatest number of endemic species occur and why?

(a)
Small volcanic archipelagos, such as the Galapagos Islands, because the abundance of unoccupied habitats favours the adaptive divergence of colonists from nearby mainland populations.
(b)
Large oceanic islands, such as Australia, because the inhabitants have been isolated from mainland populations for a very long time.
(c)
On rugged landscapes, such as Patagonia, because of the high levels of natural disturbance by glaciers and earthquakes.
(d)
Temperate woodlands, such as those in southern England, because of the high levels of disturbance by human activity and the long history of artificial selection.

129 )

Phosphate pollution is brought about by

(a)
phosphate rocks
(b)
automobile exhausts
(c)
sewage and phosphate rocks
(d)
sewage and agricultural fertilisers.

130 )

Which of the following are the correct approaches to reduce global warming?
(i) Use of fossil fuels
(ii) Improving efficiency of energy usage
(iii) Afforestation
(iv) Increasing growth of human population

(a)
(i) and (ii)
(b)
(ii) and (iii)
(c)
(iii) and (iv)
(d)
(i), (ii) and (iii)

131 )

How many chloride ions are surrounding sodium ion in sodium chloride crystal?

(a)
4
(b)
8
(c)
6
(d)
12

132 )

Which of the following will have metal deficiency defect?

(a)
NaCl
(b)
FeO
(c)
KCI
(d)
ZnO

133 )

Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has formula M_0.98O. Metal M, is present as M²⁺ and M³⁺ in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as M³⁺ would be:

(a)
5.08%
(b)
7.01%
(c)
4.08%
(d)
6.05%

134 )

Assertion: Quartz glass is crystalline solid and quartz is an amorphous solid.
Reason: Quartz glass has long range order.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false

135 )

What will be the molality of a solution of glucose in water which is 10% w/W?

(a)
0.01 m
(b)
0.617 m
(c)
0.668 m
(d)
1.623 m

136 )

The molality of 648 g of pure water is:

(a)
36 m
(b)
55.5 m
(c)
3.6 m
(d)
5.55 m

137 )

The standard EMF of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n =2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25⁰C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be: (Given F = 96500 C mol^-1, R = 8.34 JK^-1 mol^-1)

(a)
2.0 x 10¹¹
(b)
4.0 x 10¹²
(c)
1.0 x 10²
(d)
1.0 X 10¹⁰

138 )

Standard reduction potentials at 25⁰C of Li⁺/Li, Ba²⁺/Ba, Na⁺/Na and Mg²⁺/Mg are -3.05, -2.90, -2.71 and -2.37 V respectively. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

(a)
Mg²⁺
(b)
Ba²⁺
(c)
Na⁺
(d)
Li⁺

139 )

Molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L^-1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm² mol^-1, the degree of dissociation and dissociation constant will be
(Given : \({ \lambda }_{ { H }^{ + } }^{ 0 }\)= 349.6 S cm² mol^-1 and \({ \lambda }_{ { H }COO }^{ 0 }\) cm² mol^-1)

(a)
11.4%, 3.67 x 10^-4 mol L^-1
(b)
22.8%, 1.83 x 10^-4 mol L^-1
(c)
52.2%, 4.25 x 10^-4 mol L^-1
(d)
1.14%,3. 67 x 10^-6 mol L^-1

140 )

An electric current is passed through silver nitrate solution using silver electrodes. 15.25 g of silver was found to be deposited on cathode. What will be the weight of copper deposited on cathode if same amount of electricity is passed through copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes?

(a)
4.49 g
(b)
6.4 g
(c)
12.5 g
(d)
3.2 g

141 )

Assertion: The rate of a reaction sometimes does not depend on concentrations.
Reason: Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false

142 )

Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?

(a)
Electron capture by sol particles
(b)
Adsorption of ionic species from solution
(c)
Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer
(d)
Absorption of ionic species from solution

143 )

For which of the following ores froth floatation method is used for concentration?

(a)
Haematite
(b)
Zinc blende
(c)
Magnetite
(d)
Carnallite

144 )

Carnallite on electrolysis gives

(a)
Mg and Cl₂
(b)
Ca and Cl₂
(c)
K and Cl₂
(d)
AI and Cl₂

145 )

Match the inter-halogen compounds of column I with the geometry in Column II and assign the correct code.

Column I	Column II
A.XX'	(i) T-shade
B.XX'₃	(ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
C.XX'₅	(iii) Linear
D.XX'₇	(iv) Square pyramidal
	(v)Tetrahedral

code A B C D

(a)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c)
(v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

146 )

When three parts of conc. HCI and one part of conc. HNO₃ is mixed, a compound 'X' is formed. The correct option related to 'X' is

(a)
'X' is known as aqua-regia
(b)
'X' is used for dissolving gold
(c)
'X' is used for decomposition of salts of weaker acids
(d)
both (a) and (b).

147 )

Which is not the use of orthoboric acid?

(a)
As an antiseptic and eye wash.
(b)
In glass industry.
(c)
In glazes for pottery
(d)
In borax - bead test.

148 )

Which of the following d-block element has halffilled penultimate as well as valence subshell?

(a)
Cu
(b)
Au
(c)
Ag
(d)
Cr

149 )

n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent:

(a)
PCl₅
(b)
reduction
(c)
oxidation with potassium dichromate
(d)
ozonolysis.

150 )

Which of the following compounds does not react with NaOH?

(a)
CH₃COOH
(b)
CH₃CONH₂
(c)
C₆H₅OH
(d)
CH₃CH₂OH

151 )

Assertion: Addition reaction of water to but-l-ene in acidic medium yields butan-1-ol.
Reason: Addition of water in acidic medium proceeds through the formation of primary carbocation.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false.

152 )

Which of the following structures is not correctly matched?

(a)
\(\alpha -Mwthoxypropionaldehyde-{ H }_{ 3 }C-\overset { \underset { | }{ { H }_{ 3 }CO } }{ CH } -\overset { \underset { || }{ O } }{ C } -H\)
(b)
\(3-Hydroxbutanal-{ CH }_{ 3 }-\overset { \underset { | }{ OH } }{ CH } -{ CH }_{ 2 }CHO\)
(c)
\(4-Ohopentanal-{ CH }_{ 3 }{ CH }_{ 2 }{ CH }_{ 2 }-\overset { \underset { || }{ O } }{ C } -CHO\)
(d)
\(Di-sec.butlyketone-{ CH }_{ 3 }{ CH }_{ 2 }-\overset { \underset { | }{ { CH }_{ 3 } } }{ CH } -\overset { \underset { || }{ O } }{ C } -\overset { \underset { | }{ { CH }_{ 3 } } }{ CH } -{ CH }_{ 2 }{ CH }_{ 3 }\)

153 )

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a)
Only α-amino acids are obtained on hydrolysis of proteins.
(b)
The amino acids which are synthesised in the body are known as non-essential amino acids.
(c)
There are 20 essential amino acids.
(d)
L-amino acids are represented by writing the NH₂ group on the left side.

154 )

Assertion: The monomer of neoprene is 1, 3-butadiene.
Reason: Neoprene is highly inflammable.

(a)
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c)
If assertion is true but reason is false
(d)
If both assertion and reason are false

155 )

What is tincture of iodine?

(a)
2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture.
(b)
A mixture of iodine in chloroxylenol.
(c)
A mixture of 0.2% phenol and 2-3% iodine in water
(d)
2-3% solution of iodine in potassium iodide.

156 )

A current I flows in a rectangularly shaped wire whose center lies at (xo, 0, 0) and whose vertices are located at the points A(xo + d, -a, -b), B(xo - d, a, -b), C(xo - d, a, b), and D(xo + d, -a, b) respectively. Assume that a, b, d < < xo. Find the magnitude of magnetic dipole moment vector of the rectangular wire frame. (Given: b = 10 m, d = 4 m, a = 3 m, I = 0.01 A)

(a)
2 J T^-1
(b)
4 J T^-1
(c)
3 J T^-1
(d)
9 J T^-1

157 )

A circular coil of 300 turns and diameter 14 cm carries a current of 15 A. The magnitude of magnetic moment associated with the loop is

(a)
51.7 JT^-1
(b)
69.2 JT^-1
(c)
38.6 JT^-1
(d)
19.5 JT^-1

158 )

An infinitely long thin wire carrying a uniform linear static charge density A is placed along the z-axis. The wire is set into motion along its length with a uniform velocity v = \(v \vec{k}z\). Find the poynting vector.

(a)
\(\frac{-\lambda^{2} v }{4\pi^{2} \epsilon_{0}a^{2}}\hat{k}\)
(b)
\(\frac{\lambda^{2} v }{4\pi^{2} \epsilon_{0}a^{2}}\hat{i}\)
(c)
\(\frac{\lambda^{2} v }{4\pi^{2} \epsilon_{0}a^{2}}\hat{k}\)
(d)
\(\frac{-\lambda^{2} v }{4\pi^{2} \epsilon_{0}a^{2}}\hat{i}\)

159 )

In the propagation of electromagnetic waves the angle between the direction of propagation and plane of polarisation is

(a)
0°
(b)
45°
(c)
90°
(d)
180°

160 )

Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:

(a)
5/27
(b)
3/23
(c)
7/29
(d)
9/3

161 )

Radioactive material 'N has decay constant '8\(\lambda \)' and material 'B' has decay constant '\(\lambda \)'. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'N will be 1/e?