Indian Polity
Exam Duration: 45 Mins Total Questions : 30
Which one among the following statement regarding the government of India Act 1935 is not correct?
- (a)
Provincial autonomy came into existence
- (b)
Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces
- (c)
the principles of communal electorates and weightages were further extended
- (d)
the states were compelled to enter the federation
The constitution of India was completed on
- (a)
11th February, 1948
- (b)
26th November, 1949
- (c)
26th January, 1950
- (d)
None of the above
Match the List I with list II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists
List I | List II |
---|---|
A. Britian | 1. Directive Principles |
B. USA | 2. Parliamentary system |
C. South africa | 3. Fundamental Rights |
D. ireland | 4. Amending process |
- (a)
A B C D 1 2 3 4 - (b)
A B C D 2 3 4 1 - (c)
A B C D 2 1 4 3 - (d)
A B C D 1 2 4 3
Schedule Ninth of the Indian constitution deals with
- (a)
Subjects contained in the Union list, State List and Concurrent List
- (b)
The recognition of Languages
- (c)
certain acts and regulations of state legislature dealing with land reforms and abolition of Zamindari
- (d)
The territoriesof state and union territories
The writ 'Prohibition' is issued by a superior court
- (a)
To prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
- (b)
To an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
- (c)
Where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
- (d)
To an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial
Right to Equality includes
1. Equality before Law.
2. Right against discrimination on grounds of race, caste, religion etc.
3. Equal pay for equal work.
4. Abolition of untouchability.
5. Abolition of all titles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- (a)
1, 2 and 4
- (b)
1, 2,3 and 4
- (c)
1, 2, 4 and 5
- (d)
All of the above
The following provision "Protection of monuments,places and objects of national importance" is a
- (a)
Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution of India
- (b)
Directive Principle of State Policy of the Constitution of India
- (c)
Fundamental Duty laid down by the Constitution of India
- (d)
Presidential order in accordance with the Constitution of India
which one of the following committees recommended the legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties?
- (a)
Swarn Singh Committee
- (b)
Thakkar Committee
- (c)
Verma Committee
- (d)
Iyyangar Committee
The first Law Minister of independent India was
- (a)
MC Sitahvar
- (b)
BR Ambedkar
- (c)
Kailshnath Katju
- (d)
Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
which Articles of the Constitution are relevant to analyse the Constitutional provisions that deal the relationship of the President with the Council of Ministres?
- (a)
Articles 71, 75 and 78
- (b)
Articles 74, 75 and 78
- (c)
Articles 73, 74 and 78
- (d)
Articles 73, 75 and 78
Who is component to dissolve Rajya sabha?
- (a)
The chairman Rajya sabha
- (b)
The president
- (c)
The joint session of parliament
- (d)
None of the Above
Consider the following statement
1. the joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Aricle-108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. the second joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held to pass the banking services commission (repeal) bill.
Which of the following Statement are correct?
- (a)
1 and 2
- (b)
2 and 3
- (c)
1 and 3
- (d)
1, 2 and 3
How many types of writes can be issued by the Supreme Court?
- (a)
2
- (b)
3
- (c)
5
- (d)
6
Who among the following extends the jurisdiction of a High Court to include or exclude from its any state or union Territory?
- (a)
Parliament by law
- (b)
President
- (c)
Cheif Justice of India
- (d)
Legislature of the state concerned
The salary of the Governer is charged on
- (a)
the Consolidated Fund of India
- (b)
the Contingency Fund of the state
- (c)
the Consolidated Fund of the state
- (d)
the consolidated Fund of India and Consolidated Fund of the state on fifty-fifty basis
Which of the following are financial powers enjoyed by the Governor?
1. All the demands for grants are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor.
2. He is incharge of the Contingency Fund of the State and can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure.
3. The supplementary grants, if any, are presented before the State Legislature on the recommendation of the Governor.
4. He can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of the President's rule in the State.
- (a)
1 and 4
- (b)
2,3 and 4
- (c)
1,2 and 3
- (d)
1,2,3 and 4
With reference to States in India, consider the following statements
1. Six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of the State Legislative and the first sitting of next session.
2. After every general election to the State Assembly, the Governor has to address the State Assembly on the very first sitting so also the first session every year.
Which of these statements are correct?
- (a)
Only 1
- (b)
Only 2
- (c)
Both 1 and 2
- (d)
Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following falls within the supervisory powers of the High Court?
1.To call for reports from the subordinate courts under its jurisdiction
2.To make general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of lower courts.
3.To settle tables of fees to be allowed to sheriff and others practicing before these courts
4.To supervise the working of tribunals constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
- (a)
1,3 and 4
- (b)
1, 2 and 4
- (c)
2, 3 and 4
- (d)
1, 2 and 3
To which of the following States the Special Marriages Act, 1954 does not apply?
- (a)
Meghalaya
- (b)
Nagaland
- (c)
Tripura
- (d)
Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats?
- (a)
Income tax
- (b)
Sales tax
- (c)
Professional tax
- (d)
Levy duties
Which one of the following is not an automatic consequence of proclamation of Emergency?
- (a)
Suspension of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights except those conferred by Articles 20 and 21
- (b)
extension of the Union 's executive power to the issue of direction to any State as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
- (c)
Extension of power of Parliment to the making of legislation in regard to items in the state List
- (d)
Suspension of Article 19
In the event of declaration of Constitutional Emergency in the state the President can
1.assume to himself all the functions of the State Government including the High Court.
2.declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Governor
3.assume to himself all the functions of the State Government except the High Court
4.declare that the powers of the state Legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Parliment
Choose the right answer from the options given below
- (a)
1 and 2
- (b)
2 and 3
- (c)
3 and 4
- (d)
1 and 4
What is the minimum number of members in UPSC?
- (a)
8
- (b)
3
- (c)
7
- (d)
None of these
Which of the following has banned floor crossing by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislative?
- (a)
52nd Constitution Amendment Act
- (b)
Peoples Representation Act
- (c)
Maintenance of Internal Security Act
- (d)
National Security Act
Which community get's special provision for Central Services in Article 336?
- (a)
Sikh Community
- (b)
Muslim Community
- (c)
Hindu Community
- (d)
Anglo-Indian Community
The Right to Vote in india is given to all the people on the basis of
- (a)
education
- (b)
property
- (c)
religion
- (d)
age
The election commission hold election for
1.Parliament
2.State Legislature
3.President
4.Vice-President
Which of the statements given above is/are corrects
- (a)
1 and 2
- (b)
1,2 and 3
- (c)
3 and 4
- (d)
all of the above
If a member of Parliament becomes disqualified for membership, the decision of his removal is taken by
- (a)
Cheif Election Commissioner
- (b)
President of India on the advice of Council of Ministers
- (c)
President of India on enquiry by a Supreme Court Judge
- (d)
President in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission
Consider the following statements
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State by the seventy-sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. SarvaShikasha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
- (a)
1,2, and 3
- (b)
1 and 2
- (c)
2 and 3
- (d)
1 and 3
What is the time span mentioned in the RTI Act, 2005 for making orders for removing difficulties in giving effect to the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005?
- (a)
2 years from the commencement of the Act
- (b)
1 year from the commencement of the Act
- (c)
3 years from the commencement of the Act
- (d)
4 years from the commencement of the Act